SSCP Questions PDF [2024] Use Valid New dump to Clear Exam
Passing ISC SSCP Exam Using 2024 Practice Tests
NEW QUESTION # 93
What is called an exception to the search warrant requirement that allows an officer to conduct a search without having the warrant in-hand if probable cause is present and destruction of the evidence is deemed imminent?
- A. Evidence of Admissibility Doctrine
- B. Exigent Probable Doctrine
- C. Evidence Circumstance Doctrine
- D. Exigent Circumstance Doctrine
Answer: D
Explanation:
An Exigent Circumstance is an unusual and time-sensitive circumstance that justifies conduct that might not be permissible or lawful in other circumstances.
For example, exigent circumstances may justify actions by law enforcement officers acting without a warrant such as a mortal danger to a young child. Examples of other exigent circumstances include protecting evidence or property from imminent destruction.
In US v Martinez, Justice Thomas of the United States Court of Appeal used these words:
"As a general rule, we define exigent circumstances as those circumstances that would cause a reasonable person to believe that entry was necessary to prevent physical harm to the officers or other persons, the destruction of relevant evidence, the escape of the suspect, or some other consequence improperly frustrating legitimate law enforcement efforts."
In Alvarado, Justice Blackburn of the Court of Appeals of Georgia referred to exigent circumstances in the context of a drug bust:
"The exigent circumstance doctrine provides that when probable cause has been established to believe that evidence will be removed or destroyed before a warrant can be obtained, a warrantless search and seizure can be justified. As many courts have noted, the need for the exigent circumstance doctrine is particularly compelling in narcotics cases, because contraband and records can be easily and quickly destroyed while a search is progressing. Police officers relying on this exception must demonstrate an objectively reasonable basis for deciding that immediate action is required."
All of the other answers were only detractors made up and not legal terms.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 313. and http://www.duhaime.org/LegalDictionary/E/ExigentCircumstances.aspx
NEW QUESTION # 94
What is the name for a substitution cipher that shifts the alphabet by 13 places?
- A. Transposition cipher
- B. Caesar cipher
- C. ROT13 cipher
- D. Polyalphabetic cipher
Answer: C
Explanation:
An extremely simple example of conventional cryptography is a substitution cipher.
A substitution cipher substitutes one piece of information for another. This is most frequently done by offsetting letters of the alphabet. Two examples are Captain Midnight's Secret Decoder Ring, which you may have owned when you were a kid, and Julius Caesar's cipher. In both cases, the algorithm is to offset the alphabet and the key is the number of characters to offset it. So the offset could be one, two, or any number you wish. ROT-13 is an example where it is shifted 13 spaces. The Ceaser Cipher is another example where it is shifted 3 letters to the left.
ROT13 ("rotate by 13 places", sometimes hyphenated ROT-13) is a simple letter substitution cipher that replaces a letter with the letter 13 letters after it in the alphabet. ROT13 is an example of the Caesar cipher, developed in ancient Rome.
In the basic Latin alphabet, ROT13 is its own inverse; that is, to undo ROT13, the same algorithm is applied, so the same action can be used for encoding and decoding. The algorithm provides virtually no cryptographic security, and is often cited as a canonical example of weak encryption.
ROT13 is used in online forums as a means of hiding spoilers, puzzle solutions, and offensive materials from the casual glance. ROT13 has been described as the "Usenet equivalent of a magazine printing the answer to a quiz upside down". ROT13 has inspired a variety of letter and word games on-line, and is frequently mentioned in newsgroup conversations. See diagram Below:
Rot 13 Cipher
The following are incorrect:
The Caesar cipher is a simple substitution cipher that involves shifting the alphabet three positions to the right. In cryptography, a Caesar cipher, also known as Caesar's cipher, the shift cipher, Caesar's code or Caesar shift, is one of the simplest and most widely known encryption techniques. It is a type of substitution cipher in which each letter in the plaintext is replaced by a letter some fixed number of positions down the alphabet. For example, with a left shift of 3, D would be replaced by A, E would become B, and so on. The method is named after Julius Caesar, who used it in his private correspondence.
Caesar Cipher
Polyalphabetic cipher refers to using multiple alphabets at a time. A polyalphabetic cipher is any cipher based on substitution, using multiple substitution alphabets. The Vigenere cipher is probably the best-known example of a polyalphabetic cipher, though it is a simplified special case.
Viginere Cipher
Transposition cipher is a different type of cipher. In cryptography, a transposition cipher is a method of encryption by which the positions held by units of plaintext (which are commonly characters or groups of characters) are shifted according to a regular system, so that the ciphertext constitutes a permutation of the plaintext. That is, the order of the units is changed.
See the reference below for multiple examples of Transpositio Ciphers.
An exemple of Transposition cipher could be columnar transposition, the message is written out in rows of a fixed length, and then read out again column by column, and the columns are chosen in some scrambled order. Both the width of the rows and the permutation of the columns are usually defined by a keyword. For example, the word ZEBRAS is of length 6 (so the rows are of length 6), and the permutation is defined by the alphabetical order of the letters in the keyword. In this case, the order would be "6 3 2 4 1 5".
In a regular columnar transposition cipher, any spare spaces are filled with nulls; in an irregular columnar transposition cipher, the spaces are left blank. Finally, the message is read off in columns, in the order specified by the keyword. For example, suppose we use the keyword ZEBRAS and the message WE ARE DISCOVERED. FLEE AT ONCE. In a regular columnar transposition, we write this into the grid as Follows:
Transposition Cipher
Providing five nulls (QKJEU) at the end. The ciphertext is then read off as:
EVLNE ACDTK ESEAQ ROFOJ DEECU WIREE
NEW QUESTION # 95
What ensures that the control mechanisms correctly implement the security policy for the entire life cycle of an information system?
- A. Accountability controls
- B. Mandatory access controls
- C. Administrative controls
- D. Assurance procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Controls provide accountability for individuals accessing information. Assurance procedures ensure that access control mechanisms correctly implement the security policy for the entire life cycle of an information system.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 33).
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following phases of a system development life-cycle is most concerned with establishing a good security policy as the foundation for design?
- A. Development/acquisition
- B. Initiation
- C. Maintenance
- D. Implementation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
A security policy is an important document to develop while designing an information system. The security policy begins with the organization's basic commitment to information security formulated as a general policy statement.
The policy is then applied to all aspects of the system design or security solution. The policy identifies security goals (e.g., confidentiality, integrity, availability, accountability, and assurance) the system should support, and these goals guide the procedures, standards and controls used in the IT security architecture design.
The policy also should require definition of critical assets, the perceived threat, and security-related roles and responsibilities.
Source: STONEBURNER, Gary & al, National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-27, Engineering Principles for Information Technology Security (A Baseline for Achieving Security), June 2001 (page 6).
NEW QUESTION # 97
The following actions have been noted as providing motivation to virus writers? (Choose all that apply)
- A. Stupidity
- B. Fame
- C. Fortune
- D. Boredom
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following statements pertaining to Kerberos is TRUE?
- A. Kerberos cannot address confidentiality of information
- B. Kerberos does not address availability
- C. Kerberos does not address integrity
- D. Kerberos does not make use of Symmetric Keys
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Access Control
Explanation/Reference:
The question was asking for a TRUE statement and the only correct statement is "Kerberos does not address availability".
Kerberos addresses the confidentiality and integrity of information. It does not directly address availability.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 42).
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following backup method must be made regardless of whether Differential or Incremental methods are used?
- A. Supplemental backup method.
- B. Full Backup Method.
- C. Tape backup method.
- D. Incremental backup method.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A Full Backup must be made regardless of whether Differential or Incremental methods are used.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 69.
And: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 9:
Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (pages 617-619).
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which one of the following statements about the advantages and disadvantages of network- based Intrusion detection systems is true
- A. Most network-based IDSs can automatically indicate whether or not an attack was successful.
- B. The deployment of network-based IDSs has little impact upon an existing network.
- C. Network-based IDSs are well suited for modern switch-based networks.
- D. Network-based IDSs are not vulnerable to attacks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network-based IDSs are usually passive devices that listen on a network wire without interfering with the normal operation of a network. Thus, it is usually easy to retrofit a network to include network-based IDSs with minimal effort.
Network-based IDSs are not vulnerable to attacks is not true, even thou network-based IDSs can be made very secure against attack and even made invisible to many attackers they still have to read the packets and sometimes a well crafted packet might exploit or kill your capture engine.
Network-based IDSs are well suited for modern switch-based networks is not true as most switches do not provide universal monitoring ports and this limits the monitoring range of a network-based IDS sensor to a single host. Even when switches provide such monitoring ports, often the single port cannot mirror all traffic traversing the switch.
Most network-based IDSs can automatically indicate whether or not an attack was successful is not true as most network-based IDSs cannot tell whether or not an attack was successful; they can only discern that an attack was initiated. This means that after a network-based IDS detects an attack, administrators must manually investigate each attacked host to determine whether it was indeed penetrated.
NEW QUESTION # 101
Why should batch files and scripts be stored in a protected area?
- A. Because they cannot be accessed by operators.
- B. Because of the least privilege concept.
- C. Because they may contain credentials.
- D. Because of the need-to-know concept.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Because scripts contain credentials, they must be stored in a protected area and the transmission of the scripts must be dealt with carefully. Operators might need access to batch files and scripts. The least privilege concept requires that each subject in a system be granted the most restrictive set of privileges needed for the performance of authorized tasks. The need-to-know principle requires a user having necessity for access to, knowledge of, or possession of specific information required to perform official tasks or services.
Source: WALLHOFF, John, CISSP Summary 2002, April 2002, CBK#1 Access Control System & Methodology (page 3)
NEW QUESTION # 102
Which of the following IEEE standards defines the token ring media access method?
- A. 802.2
- B. 802.11
- C. 802.3
- D. 802.5
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
The IEEE 802.5 standard defines the token ring media access method. 802.3 refers to Ethernet's CSMA/CD,
802.11 refers to wireless communications and 802.2 refers to the logical link control.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page
109).
NEW QUESTION # 103
A confidential number used as an authentication factor to verify a user's identity is called a:
- A. PIN
- B. Password
- C. User ID
- D. Challenge
Answer: A
Explanation:
PIN Stands for Personal Identification Number, as the name states it is a combination of numbers.
The following answers are incorrect:
User ID This is incorrect because a Userid is not required to be a number and a Userid is only used to establish identity not verify it.
Password. This is incorrect because a password is not required to be a number, it could be any combination of characters.
Challenge. This is incorrect because a challenge is not defined as a number, it could be anything.
NEW QUESTION # 104
Attributable data should be:
- A. always traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data
- B. sometimes traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data
- C. never traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data
- D. often traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data
Answer: A
Explanation:
As per FDA data should be attributable, original, accurate, contemporaneous
and legible. In an automated system attributability could be achieved by a computer system
designed to identify individuals responsible for any input.
Source: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration,
Guidance for Industry - Computerized Systems Used in Clinical Trials, April 1999, page 1.
NEW QUESTION # 105
What does it mean to say that sensitivity labels are "incomparable"?
- A. the number of categories in the two labels are different.
- B. The number of classification in the two labels is different.
- C. Neither label contains all the categories of the other.
- D. Neither label contains all the classifications of the other.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a category does not exist then you cannot compare it. Incomparable is when you have two disjointed sensitivity labels, that is a category in one of the labels is not in the other label.
"Because neither label contains all the categories of the other, the labels can't be compared.
They're said to be incomparable"
COMPARABILITY:
The label:
TOP SECRET [VENUS ALPHA]
is "higher" than either of the labels:
SECRET [VENUS ALPHA] TOP SECRET [VENUS]
But you can't really say that the label:
TOP SECRET [VENUS]
is higher than the label:
SECRET [ALPHA]
Because neither label contains all the categories of the other, the labels can't be compared.
They're said to be incomparable. In a mandatory access control system, you won't be allowed access to a file whose label is incomparable to your clearance.
The Multilevel Security policy uses an ordering relationship between labels known as the dominance relationship. Intuitively, we think of a label that dominates another as being "higher" than the other. Similarly, we think of a label that is dominated by another as being "lower" than the other. The dominance relationship is used to determine permitted operations and information flows.
DOMINANCE
The dominance relationship is determined by the ordering of the Sensitivity/Clearance component of the label and the intersection of the set of Compartments.
Sample Sensitivity/Clearance ordering are:
Top Secret > Secret > Confidential > Unclassified
s3 > s2 > s1 > s0
Formally, for label one to dominate label 2 both of the following must be true:
The sensitivity/clearance of label one must be greater than or equal to the sensitivity/clearance of label two.
The intersection of the compartments of label one and label two must equal the compartments of label two.
Additionally:
Two labels are said to be equal if their sensitivity/clearance and set of compartments are exactly equal. Note that dominance includes equality.
One label is said to strictly dominate the other if it dominates the other but is not equal to the other. Two labels are said to be incomparable if each label has at least one compartment that is not included in the other's set of compartments.
The dominance relationship will produce a partial ordering over all possible MLS labels, resulting in what is known as the MLS Security Lattice.
The following answers are incorrect:
The number of classification in the two labels is different. Is incorrect because the categories are what is being compared, not the classifications.
Neither label contains all the classifications of the other. Is incorrect because the categories are what is being compared, not the classifications.
the number of categories in the two labels is different. Is incorrect because it is possibe a category exists more than once in one sensitivity label and does exist in the other so they would be comparable.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following backup sites is the most effective for disaster recovery?
- A. Time brokers
- B. Reciprocal Agreement
- C. Hot sites
- D. Cold sites
Answer: C
Explanation:
A hot site has the equipment, software and communications capabilities to facilitate a recovery within a few minutes or hours following the notification of a disaster to the organization's primary site. With the exception of providing your own hot site, commercial hot sites provide the greatest protection. Most will allow you up to six weeks to restore your sites if you declare a disaster. They also permit an annual amount of time to test the Disaster Plan.
The following answers are incorrect:
Cold sites. Cold sites are empty computer rooms consisting only of environmental systems, such as air conditioning and raised floors, etc. They do not meet the requirements of most regulators and boards of directors that the disaster plan be tested at least annually.
Reciprocal Agreement. Reciprocal agreements are not contracts and cannot be enforced. You cannot force someone you have such an agreement with to provide processing to you.
Government regulators do not accept reciprocal agreements as valid disaster recovery backup sites.
Time Brokers. Time Brokers promise to deliver processing time on other systems. They charge a fee, but cannot guaranty that processing will always be available, especially in areas that experienced multiple disasters.
NEW QUESTION # 107
What is a decrease in amplitude as a signal propagates along a transmission medium best known as?
- A. Noise
- B. Attenuation
- C. Crosstalk
- D. Delay distortion
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
Attenuation is the loss of signal strength as it travels. The longer a cable, the more at tenuation occurs, which causes the signal carrying the data to deteriorate. This is why standards include suggested cable-run lengths. If a networking cable is too long, attenuation may occur. Basically, the data are in the form of electrons, and these electrons have to "swim" through a copper wire. However, this is more like swimming upstream, because there is a lot of resistance on the electrons working in this media. After a certain distance, the electrons start to slow down and their encoding format loses form. If the form gets too degraded, the receiving system cannot interpret them any longer. If a network administrator needs to run a cable longer than its recommended segment length, she needs to insert a repeater or some type of device that will amplify the signal and ensure it gets to its destination in the right encoding format.
Attenuation can also be caused by cable breaks and malfunctions. This is why cables should be tested. If a cable is suspected of attenuation problems, cable testers can inject signals into the cable and read the results at the end of the cable.
The following answers are incorrect:
Crosstalk - Crosstalk is one example of noise where unwanted electrical coupling between adjacent lines causes the signal in one wire to be picked up by the signal in an adjacent wire.
Noise - Noise is also a signal degradation but it refers to a large amount of electrical fluctuation that can interfere with the interpretation of the signal by the receiver.
Delay distortion - Delay distortion can result in a misinterpretation of a signal that results from transmitting a digital signal with varying frequency components. The various components arrive at the receiver with varying delays.
Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 265
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 229 &
CISSP All-In-One Exam guide 6th Edition Page Number 561
NEW QUESTION # 108
In a stateful inspection firewall, data packets are captured by an inspection engine that is operating at the:
- A. Application Layer.
- B. Data Link Layer.
- C. Network or Transport Layer.
- D. Inspection Layer.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Most stateful packet inspection firewalls work at the network or transport layers. For the TCP/IP protcol, this allows the firewall to make decisions both on IP addresses, protocols and TCP/UDP port numbers Application layer is incorrect. This is too high in the OSI stack for this type of firewall.
Inspection layer is incorrect. There is no such layer in the OSI stack.
"Data link layer" is incorrect. This is too low in the OSI stack for this type of firewall.
NEW QUESTION # 109
What is the framing specification used for transmitting digital signals at 1.544 Mbps on a T1 facility?
- A. DS-1
- B. DS-3
- C. DS-2
- D. DS-0
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Digital Signal level 1 (DS-1) is the framing specification used for transmitting digital signals at 1.544 Mbps on a T1 facility. DS-0 is the framing specification used in transmitting digital signals over a single 64 Kbps channel over a T1 facility. DS-3 is the framing specification used for transmitting digital signals at 44.736 Mbps on a T3 facility. DS-2 is not a defined framing specification.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page
114).
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following would MOST likely ensure that a system development project meets business objectives?
- A. Development of a project plan identifying all development activities
- B. User involvement in system specification and acceptance
- C. Strict deadlines and budgets
- D. Development and tests are run by different individuals
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Effective user involvement is the most critical factor in ensuring that the application meets business objectives.
A great way of getting early input from the user community is by using Prototyping. The prototyping method was formally introduced in the early 1980s to combat the perceived weaknesses of the waterfall model with regard to the speed of development. The objective is to build a simplified version (prototype) of the application, release it for review, and use the feedback from the users' review to build a second, better version.
This is repeated until the users are satisfied with the product. t is a four-step process:
initial concept,
design and implement initial prototype,
refine prototype until acceptable, and
complete and release final version.
There is also the Modified Prototype Model (MPM. This is a form of prototyping that is ideal for Web application development. It allows for the basic functionality of a desired system or component to be formally deployed in a quick time frame. The maintenance phase is set to begin after the deployment. The goal is to have the process be flexible enough so the application is not based on the state of the organization at any given time. As the organization grows and the environment changes, the application evolves with it, rather than being frozen in time.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 12101-12108 and 12099-12101). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 296).
NEW QUESTION # 111
What is the act of obtaining information of a higher sensitivity by combining information from lower levels of sensitivity?
- A. Data mining
- B. Inference
- C. Aggregation
- D. Polyinstantiation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Aggregation is the act of obtaining information of a higher sensitivity by combining information from lower levels of sensitivity.
The incorrect answers are:
Polyinstantiation is the development of a detailed version of an object from another object using different values in the new object.
Inference is the ability of users to infer or deduce information about data at sensitivity levels for which they do not have access privilege.
Data mining refers to searching through a data warehouse for data correlations.
Sources:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 7: Applications and Systems Development (page 261).
KRUTZ, Ronald & VINES, Russel, The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition, Wiley Publishing Inc., 2003, Chapter 7: Database Security Issues (page 358).
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following is best provided by symmetric cryptography?
- A. Integrity
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. Availability
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: D
Explanation:
When using symmetric cryptography, both parties will be using the same key for encryption and decryption. Symmetric cryptography is generally fast and can be hard to break, but it offers limited overall security in the fact that it can only provide confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION # 113
CORRECT TEXT
______________ is a major component of an overall risk management program.
Answer:
Explanation:
assessment
NEW QUESTION # 114
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